Seems to me that in listening to CNBC they interpret an inverted yield curve as being when the yield on the 2-yr is above the 10-yr, and say the curve is not now inverted because it has not CLOSED with the 2-yr above the 10.
But the treasury yield data
shows that the rate is monotonically DEcreasing from the 1-month out thru 5 years. Then it picks up enough so the 10-yr is (barely) above the 2-yr. But it's not above the 1-yr, for example. If you draw it out on paper it sure looks inverted.
But the treasury yield data
shows that the rate is monotonically DEcreasing from the 1-month out thru 5 years. Then it picks up enough so the 10-yr is (barely) above the 2-yr. But it's not above the 1-yr, for example. If you draw it out on paper it sure looks inverted.
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